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(Notification) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot (ALP) Recruitment No. CEN 01/2025



(Notification) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot (ALP)

Recruitment No. CEN 01/2025



Posts Detail:

 

Cat

RRB

ZONE

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

TOTAL

Ex-SM

 

AHMEDABAD

WR

223

74

37

130

33

497

50

 

AJMER

NWR

162

262

73

133

49

679

69

WCR

109

4

0

14

14

141

14

 

PRAYAGRAJ

NR

33

12

6

21

8

80

8

NCR

218

72

50

110

58

508

51

 

BHOPAL

WR

23

12

0

11

0

46

5

WCR

221

103

53

130

111

618

62

BHUBANESWAR

ECoR

454

205

119

121

29

928

93

BILASPUR

SECR

228

86

43

155

56

568

57

CHANDIGARH

NR

188

56

28

117

44

433

44

CHENNAI

SR

155

56

37

73

41

362

37

GORAKHPUR

NER

32

12

28

21

7

100

10

GUWAHATI

NFR

13

4

2

8

3

30

3

JAMMU-SRINAGAR

NR

4

3

1

0

0

8

1

KOLKATA

SER

95

39

19

61

48

262

27

ER

194

71

39

103

51

458

46

MALDA

ER

171

66

37

103

33

410

42

SER

10

4

2

6

2

24

2

MUMBAI

SCR

9

3

2

6

2

22

2

CR

152

56

28

102

38

376

38

WR

138

51

26

93

34

342

34

MUZAFFARPUR

ECR

36

13

7

24

9

89

9

PATNA

ECR

14

5

2

9

3

33

3

 

RANCHI

ECR

234

87

43

156

58

578

58

SER

255

105

45

164

66

635

63

 

SECUNDERABAD

SCR

435

136

70

216

110

967

98

ECoR

216

80

40

144

53

533

53

SILIGURI

NFR

39

14

6

26

10

95

10

THIRUVANANTHAPURAM

SR

55

25

15

32

21

148

15

TOTAL

4116

1716

858

2289

991

9970

1004

 

Educational Qualification :

A) Matriculation / SSLC plus ITI from recognised institutions of NCVT/SCVT in the trades of Fitter, Electrician, Instrument Mechanic, Millwright/Maintenance Mechanic, Mechanic (Radio & TV), Electronics Mechanic, Mechanic (Motor Vehicle), Wireman, Tractor Mechanic, Armature & Coil Winder, Mechanic (Diesel), Heat Engine, Turner, Machinist, Refrigeration & Air- Conditioning Mechanic. 

(OR)

Matriculation / SSLC plus Course Completed Act Apprenticeship in the trades mentioned above

(OR)

B)Matriculation / SSLC plus three years Diploma in Mechanical / Electrical / Electronics / Automobile Engineering (OR) combination of various streams of these Engineering disciplines from a recognised Institution in lieu of ITI. 

Note: Degree in the Engineering disciplines as above will also be acceptable in lieu of Diploma in Engineering.

Age Limit: (as on 01-07-2025):

18 to 30 years. The lower and upper age limit is common for all the notified posts and the same shall be reckoned.

(E-book) DOWNLOAD RRB ALP PAPERS PDF(English Medium)

NEW Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

NEW रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

NEW RRB LOCO PILOT (ALP) Exam Online Tests Series

Exam Fee:

Candidates applying for the posts in this CEN have to pay the prescribed fee as per their category detailed below:

SL.No Candidate Categories

Fee

1. For all candidates (except categories mentioned below at Sl. No. 2).Out of this fee of Rs 500/-, an amount of Rs 400/- shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges, on appearing in 1st Stage CBT.

500/-

2.

For candidates who belong to SC, ST, Ex-Servicemen, Female, Transgender, Minorities or Economically Backward Class (EBC). (Caution to Candidates: EBC should not be confused with OBC or EWS) This fee of Rs 250/- shall be refunded duly deducting bank charges as applicable, on appearing in 1st Stage CBT.

250/-

a) Only ONLINE fee payment through internet banking, debit/credit cards, or UPI will be accepted. All applicable service charges shall be borne by the candidate. 
b) Fee can be paid by the candidates through ONLINE mode only. There will be no option to pay fee through any other mode. 
c) Applications received without the prescribed fee shall not be considered and summarily rejected. No representation against such rejection will be entertained. 

Scale of Pay :

Level 02 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix with initial pay of Rs.-19900/- plus other allowances as admissible.

Syllabus :

FIRST STAGE CBT (CBT-1):

(a) CBT-1 will only be a screening exam for shortlisting eligible candidates for CBT-2 based on their normalized marks and merit. 
(b) The marks of CBT-1 shall not be counted while preparing the final panel. 
(c) Candidates belonging to OBC/SC/ST who are shortlisted for CBT-2 by availing relaxed standards of age shall continue to be treated as candidates of their respective reserved communities only for all subsequent stages of this recruitment process.

(d) Pattern & Syllabus of CBT-1: 

(i) Duration: 60 minutes
(ii) Number of questions: 75, Maximum marks: 75 (@1 mark per question)
(iii) There shall be negative marking @1/3rd marks for each wrong answer. 
(iv) Normalization of marks will be done for CBTs held in multiple shifts. 
(v) Minimum pass percentage for eligibility: UR & EWS - 40%, OBC (NCL) - 30%, SC - 30%, ST- 25%. 
(vi) The standard of questions for CBT-1 will generally be in conformity with the educational standards and/or minimum technical qualifications prescribed for the post. Questions will be of objective type with multiple choice answers and are likely to cover topics pertaining to the following syllabus: 

(A) Mathematics: Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work; Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square Root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc. 

(B) Mental Ability: Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency, Conclusions and Decision Making, Similarities and Differences, Analytical reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement - Arguments and Assumptions etc. 

(C) General Science: The syllabus under this shall cover Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences of 10th standard level. 
(D) General Awareness: Current affairs, science & technology, sports, culture, personalities, economics, politics and other subject of importance.

SECOND STAGE CBT (CBT-2): 

(a) Shortlisting of candidates for CBT-2 shall be done RRB-wise and community-wise as per their normalized marks and merit in CBT-1.
(b) Total number of candidates to be shortlisted for CBT-2 shall be limited to 15 (fifteen) times the number of vacancies notified against each RRB. 
(c) However, Railways reserve the right to increase/decrease the above limit as required, to ensure availability of adequate number of candidates for the notified post. 
(d) The final panels for ALP will be prepared only on the basis of marks and merit of candidates in CBT-2 & CBAT. 

(e) Pattern & Syllabus of CBT-2: 

(i) CBT-2 shall comprise of two parts viz., Part-A and Part-B as detailed below.
(ii) Total Duration: 2 hours and 30 minutes & Total Questions: 175 
 
Part-A: 90 minutes & 100 questions 
Part-B: 60 minutes & 75 questions 

(iii) There shall be negative marking @1/3rd marks for each wrong answer. 
(iv) Normalization of marks will be done for CBTs held in multiple shifts. 
(v) In Part -A, Minimum pass percentage for eligibility: UR & EWS - 40%, OBC (NCL) - 30%, SC - 30%, ST-25%. 
(vi) Only the marks scored in Part-A shall be counted for shortlisting of candidates for further stages of this recruitment process provided the candidate irrespective of community is able to secure qualifying marks (35%) in Part-B. 

(vii) SYLLABUS for Part-A: 

(A) Mathematics: Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work; Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square Root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc. 
(B) General Intelligence and Reasoning: Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency, Conclusions and decision making, Similarities and differences, Analytical reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement-Arguments and Assumptions etc. 
(C) Basic Science and Engineering: The broad topics that are covered under this shall be Engineering Drawing (Projections, Views, Drawing Instruments, Lines, Geometric figures, Symbolic Representation), Units, Measurements, Mass Weight and Density, Work Power and Energy, Speed and Velocity, Heat and Temperature, Basic Electricity, Levers and Simple Machines, Occupational Safety and Health, Environment Education, IT Literacy etc. 

(viii) SYLLABUS for Part-B: 

(A) Part-B is only a qualifying test in nature and shall have questions from the various trade syllabi as prescribed by Directorate General of Training (DGT). 
(B) Note: Qualifying Percentage-35% for all candidates irrespective of category/community. 
(C) Syllabus of Various Trades: Please check the website (https://dgt.gov.in.) of Directorate General of Training (GOI) for syllabi of different technical trades. 
(D) Candidates with ITI/Trade Apprenticeship qualification will be required to appear in the section having questions from their trade. 
(E) Degree, Diploma candidates have to select one trade from the list of trades listed below against their engineering discipline. 

How To Apply:

(a) Candidates must read all information and instruction carefully before filling the ONLINE application to prevent mistakes.

(b) For filling ONLINE APPLICATION, Candidates must go through the link given for this CEN, in the official RRB websites at para 13 (j) below. Candidates are allowed to choose only one RRB and submit only one ONLINE Application for the notified posts within chosen RRB only.

(c) During the ONLINE APPLICATION, Candidate will be asked to Create Account. If a candidate has already created an account for any Indian Railways CEN of 2024, before April 2025, they should use same account credentials to log in and apply for this CEN (i.e., CEN No 01/2025) as well. If the candidate has not “Created Account” till now, candidates must first create an account. Candidates are advised to fill in the details required for account creation with utmost care, as corrections of any kind will NOT be permitted once the account is created. 

(d) They must have an active personal mobile number and a valid email ID for receiving OTPs for account creation. No change in details filled in ‘Create an Account’ form (including mobile number and email ID) will be permitted later. 

(e) Candidates are advised, in their own interest to authenticate their identity using Aadhaar during the " Create an Account " activity, which will facilitate a smoother process at different stages of recruitment for the candidates themselves. If applicants verify their identity & other primary details with alternate Photo IDs will be subjected to significantly stricter & more detailed scrutiny at every stage of recruitment process 

(f) 12 Details filled in the ’Create an Account’ form such as mobile number and Email ID, Applicant Name, Father Name, Mother Name, Gender, Nationality, Date of Birth, Matriculation Roll Number & Matriculation Certificate Serial Number, Matriculation Certificate date and EKYC, cannot be modified at any stage once the account is created under any circumstances. 

(g) After the submission of the ONLINE application (complete in all respects) and paid requisite fee successfully, if a candidate wishes to further modify, change or correct any detail except 12 details filled in ‘Create an Account’ and also “Chosen RRB”, he/she may do so by paying a modification fee of Rs. 250/- (non-refundable) for each occasion from 14-05-2025 to 23-05-2025. Details filled in ‘Create an Account’ form and Chosen RRB cannot be changed. After 23-05-2025, RRBs shall not entertain any representation for modification of the information furnished in the application. 

Important Dates:

Date of Indicative Notice in Employment News

29-03-2025

Opening date of on-line application submission

12-04-2025

Closing date for Submission of on-line Application

11-05-2025(23:59 hours)

Last Date for Application fee payment for the submitted applications

13-05-2025 (23:59  hours)

Dates  for Modification  window for corrections  in application  form with payment  of modification  fee  (Please  Note: Details filled  in ‘Create an Account’ form and Chosen RRB cannot be modified)

14-05-2025 to 23-05-2025

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here for Apply Online

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NEW Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

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(e-Book) रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड: जूनियर इंजीनियर RRB J.E. Junior Engineer Previous Year Exam Papers-2024

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(e-Book) रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड: जूनियर इंजीनियर RRB J.E. Junior Engineer Previous Year Exam Papers-2024

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16-दिसंबर 2024

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  • शिफ्ट-3

17-दिसंबर 2024

  • शिफ्ट-1
  • शिफ्ट-2
  • शिफ्ट-3

18-दिसंबर 2024

  • शिफ्ट-1
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  • शिफ्ट-3

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Contents:

16-DECEMBER 2024

SHIFT-1
SHIFT-2
SHIFT-3

17-DECEMBER 2024

SHIFT-1
SHIFT-2
SHIFT-3

18-DECEMBER 2024

SHIFT-1
SHIFT-2
SHIFT-3

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Study Notes for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-18-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-3

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-18-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-3

EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 18 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 3

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Evaluate: 33 ÷ 9 × 3 - 2 × 3
Ans 1. 8
2. 5
3. 7
4. 4

Q.2 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) 3 & ^ 5 7 # 9 % 8 * 4 < 1 $ 2 @ * 6 (Right) 
How many such symbols are there which are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
HFC JHE LJG NLI ?
Ans 1. PMK
2. PNK
3. PML
4. PNL

Q.4 The Indigo Rebellion took place in _______ during 1859-1860.
Ans 1. Madras
2. Bengal
3. Punjab
4. Bombay

Q.5 Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule is used to determine _________.

Ans 1. the amount of current flowing through the conductor
2. the strength of the magnetic field
3. the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor
4. the magnitude of the force on a current-carrying conductor

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 18 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 2

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 A man sold an article for ₹360 by first giving a d% discount on its marked price, and then another discount having the same nominal value (in ₹). If the marked price of the article is ₹2250, then what is the value of d?
Ans 1. 41
2. 38
3. 42
4. 45

Q.2 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::? 
# : UOK :: HBX : %
Ans 1. # = TJF, % = MGC
2. # = PJF, % = NGC
3. # = PJF, % = MGO
4. # = PJF, % = MGC

Q.3 The marks scored by 10 students are given below. 
18, 13, 14, 18, 14, 17, 15, 11, 13, 18 The mode of the data is:

Ans 1. 13
2. 18
3. 14
4. 11

Q.4 What does the thumb represent in Fleming's Right-Hand Rule?
Ans 1. Direction of motion
2. Direction of voltage
3. Direction of magnetic field
4. Direction of induced current

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 18 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 1

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Write the expanded form of (6a + 2b + 7c)2.
Ans 1. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 28ab + 28bc + 84ac
2. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 24ab + 28bc + 94ac
3. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 24ab + 23bc + 84ac
4. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 24ab + 28bc + 84ac

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 
34 ÷ 33 × 22 + 19 − 40 = ?

Ans 1. 74
2. 72
3. 73
4. 70

Q.3 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 19-57-114-134; 21-63-126-146 

Ans 1. 18-54-108-118
2. 17-51-102-112
3. 20-60-120-180
4. 16-48-96-116

Q.4 Tapan starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn,drives 5 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) 

Ans 1. 4 km to the west
2. 7 km to the west
3. 5 km to the west
4. 6 km to the west

Q.5 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was introduced in 2023.
2) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam ensures 33% reserved seats for women in the Parliament, Legislative Assemblies and Delhi Assembly.
3) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam will be in force for 10 years only.

Ans 1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 17 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 3

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Which scientist(s) established the laws of Inheritance?
Ans 1. Watson and Crick
2. Charles Darwin
3. Gregor Johann Mendel
4. Thomas Hunt Morgan

Q.2 Find the value of 1.356+4.25X8-3.562X6+7.5X4
Ans 1. 41.625
2. 42.237
3. 43.012
4. 43.984

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
86 78 64 56 42 34 ?
Ans 1. 20
2. 22
3. 26
4. 28

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 17 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 2

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in closest integral ₹) on ₹4000 at 5.25% per annum rate of interest for the period from 5 February 2024 to 6 April 2024
Ans 1. 33
2. 34
3. 36
4. 35

Q.2 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Annual Financial Statement 2024-25?
1) The Budget 2024-25 will focus on four castes.
2) 1 crore farmers across the country will be initiated into natural farming, supported by certification and branding in the next 2 years.
3) 20,000 need-based bio-input resource centres to be established.
4) 1,000 Industrial Training Institutes will be upgraded in hub and spoke arrangements with outcome orientation.
Ans 1. 3 only
2. 4 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 only

Q.3 Which of the following is true about asexual reproduction?
Ans 1. It results in offspring genetically identical to the parent.
2. It requires complex reproductive organs.
3. It requires fertilisation.
4. It involves two parent organisms.

Q.4 What are the number of chromosomes in a human male germ cell?
Ans 1. 46 pairs of Chromosomes
2. 23 pairs of Chromosomes
3. 23 Chromosomes
4. 46 Chromosomes

Q.5 In which language was the classic Indian novel 'Chandrakanta' originally written?
Ans 1. Hindi
2. Bengali
3. Urdu
4. Tamil

Q.6 In Delhi Sultanate, the holder of an ‘iqta’, who also worked as the administrative head of his ‘iqta’, was designated as ________.
Ans 1. ariz
2. wazir
3. qazi
4. muqti

Q.7 A six-digit number is divisible by 91. If 143 is added to this number, the resulting number is divisible by which of the following number?
Ans 1. 13
2. 7
3. 11
4. 91

Q.8 GJBF is related to ILDH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JMEI is related to LOGK. To which of the following is MPHL related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ROJN
2. ORJN
3. ORNJ
4. RONJ

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 17 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 1

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 An electric fan is connected to a 220 V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power used by the fan?

Ans 1. 110 Watt
2. 11 Watt
3. 440 Watt
4. 220 Watt

Q.2 Find the arithmetic mean of the following data (correct to two places of decimals).

Classinterval 5-15 15-25 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65
Frequency 12 18 8 14 16 8

Ans 1. 33.68
2. 43.72
3. 22.38
4. 39.45

Q.3 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?
# : RXT :: FLH : %
Ans 1. # = OGT, % = IKH
2. # = GHT, % = INY
3. # = OUP, % = KIU
4. # = OUQ, % = IOK

Q.4 Which of the following rivers is ephemeral?
Ans 1. Beas
2. Chambal
3. Yamuna
4. Luni
 

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(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-16-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-3

EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 16 Dec 2024

SHIFT :3

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Which of the following is true regarding the bud development process in Hydra?
Ans 1. Cell divisions at one site
2. Formation of spore
3. Splitting of cytoplasm
4. Splitting of nucleus

Q.2 When an atom of sodium reacts with an atom of chlorine to form sodium chloride, each sodium atom:
Ans 1. gains one electron
2. gains one proton
3. loses one electron
4. loses one proton

Q.3 If at same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹56 and compound interest is ₹72, then what is the principal (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 53
2. 42
3. 49
4. 44

Q.4 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 4835176, what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from the right?
Ans 1. 10
2. 12
3. 11
4. 14

Q.5 Which of the following chemical equations is balanced?
Ans 1. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
2. H₂ + 2O₂ → 2H₂O
3. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
4. H₂O + O₂ → H₂O₂

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(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-16-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-2

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-16-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-2

EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 16 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 2

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Pratap starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,drives 13 km, turns right and drives 18 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 18 km.

He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) 
Ans 1. 7 km to the west
2. 5 km to the west
3. 3 km to the west
4. 6 km to the west

Q.2 If the Radius hamisphere is increse by 50% the find the percentage increse the volume.
Ans 1. 112.5%
2. 150%
3. 125%
4. 137.5%

Q.3 Sangeeta and Hemlata invest in a business in the ratio 1 : 3. If total profit is Rs. 2568,then what is difference between the profit (in Rs.) of Sangeeta and Hemlata?
Ans 1. 1384
2. 1284
3. 1184
4. 1334

Q.4 The length of each of the two equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 89 cm each and the length of its base is 78 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle is:
Ans 1. 3120
2. 3134
3. 3102
4. 3139

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(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-16-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-1

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-16-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-1

EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 16 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 1

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 SKIB is related to OGNG in a certain way based on the English alphabecal order.
In the same way, CUCV is related to YQHA. To which of the following opons is QIRK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MWEP
2. MWPE
3. MEPW
4. MEWP

Q.2 The magnetic field inside a long, straight solenoid carrying current is ____________.
Ans 1. uniform and parallel to the axis of the solenoid
2. inversely proportional to the current
3. zero
4. stronger near the edges

Q.3 Which of the following materials is likely to be non-biodegradable?
Ans 1. Paper
2. Plastic
3. Vegetable peels
4. Wood

Q.4 Which of the following articles deals with the Finance Commission that distributes taxes between the Centre and State?
Ans 1. Article 281
2. Article 283
3. Article 282
4. Article 280

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